INBDE Navigator 2024

By Dr. Benjamin Parker

Prepare to Excel in the INBDE with Our Comprehensive Guide!

Are you ready to conquer the INBDE and embark on a successful career in dentistry? Look no further! Our latest book is your ultimate companion in mastering every aspect of the INBDE exam.

Inside, you'll find a treasure trove of essential information meticulously curated to equip you with the knowledge and skills needed to ace the exam with confidence. From detailed chapters covering every subject area to invaluable tips and tricks from seasoned professionals, this book leaves no stone unturned in your preparation journey.

 

But that's not all! We understand the importance of practice in achieving mastery. That's why we've included an extensive bank of multiple-choice questions (MCQs) meticulously crafted to mirror the complexity and diversity of the INBDE exam. Test your knowledge, identify areas for improvement, and track your progress with our comprehensive MCQ question bank.

 

? Additionally, we recognize the significance of case-based questions in preparing for the INBDE. Dive into our collection of challenging case scenarios designed to simulate real-world patient encounters. Sharpen your critical thinking skills, hone your diagnostic abilities, and elevate your clinical reasoning to new heights.

 

Why Choose Our Book?

- Comprehensive coverage of all INBDE subject areas.

- Expert insights and strategies from top professionals in the field.

- Extensive MCQ question bank for thorough practice.

- Challenging case-based questions to enhance clinical reasoning.

- Designed to boost confidence and optimize performance on exam day.

 

Don't leave your success to chance. Empower yourself with the knowledge, practice, and confidence needed to excel in the INBDE. Get your copy of our book today and take the first step towards a fulfilling career in dentistry!

• Language: English
• Publisher: Dr Benjamin Parker
• Release date: Apr 5, 2024
• ISBN: 9781445792712

Dr. Benjamin Parker

Dr. Benjamin Parker : Guiding Light in INBDE Preparation. Dr. Benjamin Parker is not just a writer; he's a beacon of hope for those navigating the challenging waters of INBDE preparation. With his profound understanding of the intricacies of dentistry and a passion for education, Dr. Benjamin Parker has become an indispensable figure in the dental community. Born and raised in a family deeply rooted in the field of dentistry , Dr. Benjamin Parker's journey into the world of dental education was inevitable. From a young age, he displayed an insatiable curiosity for the science of oral health and a knack for simplifying complex concepts—a talent that would serve him well in his future endeavors. After completing his dental education, Dr. Benjamin Parker embarked on a mission to revolutionize INBDE preparation. Recognizing the lack of comprehensive resources specifically designed for this crucial test, he set out to fill the gap with his groundbreaking book "INBDE Navigator." Benjamin Parker is on a mission to revolutionize INBDE preparation. Realizing the lack of all-encompassing resources for this crucial test, he set out to fill the mediocrity with his pioneering book, "INBDE Navigator." The "INBDE Navigator" quickly became a cornerstone in the arsenal of aspiring dentists worldwide. Dr. Benjamin Parker's meticulous research, coupled with his ability to distill vast amounts of information into easily digestible content, has earned him widespread acclaim in the dental community.

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Invest in your future by investing in your preparation. Let this book be your roadmap to success in the INBDE and beyond

Table of Contentpage

Introduction ⁷

Fields ofDentistry

Operative Dentistry Questions⁹

Pediatric Dentistry Questions⁷⁰

Oral Surgery Questions¹⁸³

Endodontic Questions ²⁴⁵

Orthodontic Questions ³⁰³

Prothodontic Questions ³⁵⁹

Preventive Dentistry Questions⁴²²

Oral Pathology Questions ⁴⁷⁷

Oral Radiology Questions⁵¹³

––––––––

Anatomy

Head and Neck Anatomy Questions ⁶¹⁹

DentalAnatomy and OcclusionQuestions ⁷¹¹

Tempromandibular Joint Questions⁸²⁶

Medicine

Pathology Questions ⁹⁹⁵

Microbiology Questions ¹⁰⁷³

Developmental Disorder Questions ¹¹³⁸

Physiology Questions¹²⁰¹

Pharmacology

Anesthesia and pain Management Questions¹²⁷⁵

Atibiotics Questions ¹³⁴⁶

AntiFungals Questions¹⁴⁰⁴

Antiviral Questions¹⁴⁵⁹

Systems Pharmacology Questions ¹⁵³⁶

Patient Management

Patient Management questions ¹⁵⁹⁷

Practice Management Questions ¹⁶²⁶

Ethics , Law , and Behaviolar Science Questions ¹⁶⁵⁵

Medical Complications Questions ¹⁷¹⁶

––––––––

Case based Question Bank ¹⁷⁹⁵ to ²¹⁷³

Conclusion ²¹⁷⁵

Copywrite

978-1-4457-9271-2

C:\Users\MC 30-8-20\Downloads\Telegram Desktop\photo_2024-04-02_23-16-39.jpg

Introduction

Are you ready to embark on the journey towards your dental career? Look no further than the comprehensive guide to conquering the INBDE exam. Packed with invaluable insights and expert strategies, this book is your indispensable companion on the path to success.

Inside, you'll discover everything you need to know about the INBDE exam, from understanding its format and structure to mastering the key concepts and topics. With clear explanations and practical tips, you'll gain the confidence and knowledge to tackle each section with ease.

Whether you're a seasoned student or just beginning your dental education, this book offers a roadmap to excel in the INBDE exam and pave the way for a fulfilling career in dentistry. Get ready to unlock your potential and achieve your dreams with this essential resource."

Fields ofDentistry

––––––––

Operative Dentistry

¹. Which of the following is the most commonly used restorative material in operative dentistry?

a. Composite resin

b. Amalgam

c. Glass ionomer cement

d. Gold alloy

Answer: a. Composite resin

Explanation: Composite resin is the most commonly used restorative material in operative dentistry due to its esthetics, adhesive properties, and versatility.

². Which tooth preparation design is commonly used for an amalgam restoration?

a. Class I

b. Class II

c. Class III

d. Class V

Answer: b. Class II

Explanation: Class II tooth preparation design is used for amalgam restorations in posterior teeth involving proximal surfaces.

³. The primary reason for using a rubber dam during restorative procedures is to:

a. Improve isolation and moisture control

b. Prevent pulp sensitivity

c. Enhance esthetics

d. Facilitate shade matching

Answer: a. Improve isolation and moisture control

Explanation: Rubber dam provides better isolation and moisture control, which is essential for proper bonding and restoration longevity.

⁴. Which dental material is commonly used for pulp capping in deep carious lesions?

a. Calcium hydroxide

b. Glass ionomer cement

c. Zinc oxide eugenol

d. Amalgam

Answer: a. Calcium hydroxide

Explanation: Calcium hydroxide is commonly used for pulp capping in deep carious lesions due to its excellent biocompatibility and ability to promote dentin bridge formation.

⁵. Which restorative material is contraindicated for patients with metal allergies?

a. Amalgam

b. Composite resin

c. Glass ionomer cement

d. Gold alloy

Answer: a. Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam contains mercury, which can cause allergic reactions in patients with metal allergies. Therefore, it is contraindicated in such cases.

⁶. The most common reason for failure of composite resin restorations is:

a. Marginal leakage

b. Postoperative sensitivity

c. Color instability

d. Secondary caries

Answer: d. Secondary caries

Explanation: Secondary caries is the most common reason for failure of composite resin restorations, emphasizing the importance of proper oral hygiene and regular dental check-ups.

⁷. Which type of matrix system is commonly used for the restoration of class II composite resin restorations?

a. Tofflemire matrix

b. Mylar strip matrix

c. Sectional matrix

d. Bioclear matrix

Answer: c. Sectional matrix

Explanation: Sectional matrix systems are commonly used for the restoration of class II composite resin restorations to achieve proper contour, contact, and adaptation.

⁸. When should a rubber dam be used for a composite resin restoration?

a. Only for posterior teeth

b. Only for anterior teeth

c. Always, regardless of the tooth location

d. Only if the tooth is isolated with cotton rolls

Answer: c. Always, regardless of the tooth location

Explanation: A rubber dam should be used for composite resin restorations in all teeth to achieve optimal isolation and moisture control.

⁹. Which of the following is the primary disadvantage of using glass ionomer cement as a restorative material?

a. Poor esthetics

b. High solubility

c. Low compressive strength

d. Difficult handling properties

Answer: c. Low compressive strength

Explanation: Glass ionomer cement has lower compressive strength compared to other restorative materials, which limits its use in high-stress-bearing areas.

¹⁰. What is the recommended etching time for enamel when using phosphoric acid etchant?

a. 10 seconds

b. 20 seconds

c. 30 seconds

d. 60 seconds

Answer: b. 20 seconds

Explanation: The recommended etching time for enamel with phosphoric acid etchant is typically 20 seconds to achieve an adequate enamel bond.

¹¹. Which of the following is a characteristic of a type III cavity preparation?

a. Involves the occlusal surface of molars

b. Involves the proximal surfaces of premolars

c. Involves the proximal surfaces of molars

d. Involves the gingival third of facial or lingual surfaces

Answer: b. Involves the proximal surfaces of premolars

Explanation: Type III cavity preparation involves the proximal surfaces of premolars.

¹². Which restorative material is most commonly used for temporary restorations?

a. Zinc oxide eugenol

b. Composite resin

c. Glass ionomer cement

d. Amalgam

Answer: a. Zinc oxide eugenol

Explanation: Zinc oxide eugenol is commonly used for temporary restorations due to its ease of use, sedative effect on the pulp, and ability to provide a temporary seal.

¹³. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using amalgam as a restorative material?

a. Poor esthetics

b. High cost

c. Low strength

d. High solubility

Answer: a. Poor esthetics

Explanation: Amalgam has poor esthetics compared to tooth-colored restorative materials, which can be a disadvantage in highly visible areas.

¹⁴. The most common cause of postoperative sensitivity in composite resin restorations is:

a. Inadequate curing

b. Marginal leakage

c. Microleakage

d. Pulpitis

Answer: c. Microleakage

Explanation: Microleakage, which refers to the seepage of fluids and bacteria along the restoration margins, is a common cause of postoperative sensitivity in composite resin restorations.

¹⁵. Which of the following is an advantage of using a resin-modified glass ionomer cement?

a. High compressive strength

b. Excellent esthetics

c. Easy handling properties

d. Strong bond to enamel and dentin

Answer: d. Strong bond to enamel and dentin

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomer cement provides a strong bond to both enamel and dentin, making it a favorable choice in situations where bonding is critical.

¹⁶. Which of the following instruments is used to place and shape composite resin restorations?

a. Amalgam carrier

b. Condenser

c. Burnisher

d. Composite placement instrument

Answer: d. Composite placement instrument

Explanation: Composite placement instruments have specific shapes and tips designed for precise placement and shaping of composite resin restorations.

¹⁷. What is the purpose of a bevel in cavity preparation?

a. To provide retention form

b. To improve esthetics

c. To enhance mechanical properties

d. To reduce microleakage

Answer: b. To improve esthetics

Explanation: Bevels are used to improve the esthetics of the restoration by creating a smooth transition between the tooth structure and the restoration materials.

¹⁸. Which of the following is true regarding light-curing of composite resin restorations?

a. The curing light should be held as close as possible to the restoration.

b. The curing time is independent of the shade of the composite resin.

c. Incremental layering does not affect the curing depth.

d. The curing light should have a wavelength that matches the photoinitiator in the composite resin.

Answer: d. The curing light should have a wavelength that matches the photoinitiator in the composite resin.

Explanation: The curing light used for composite resin restorations should have a wavelength that matches the photoinitiator in the composite resin to ensure proper polymerization.

¹⁹. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a resin composite restoration?

a. High cost

b. Poor esthetics

c. High solubility

d. Low strength

Answer: a. High cost

Explanation: Resin composite restorations are relatively more expensive compared to amalgam restorations, which can be a disadvantage for some patients.

²⁰. A class V cavity preparation involves:

a. The occlusal surface of molars

b. The proximal surfaces of premolars

c. The gingival third of facial or lingual surfaces

d. The incisal edge of anterior teeth

Answer: c. The gingival third of facial or lingual surfaces

Explanation: Class V cavity preparation involves the gingival third of facial or lingual surfaces of teeth.

²¹. The most common cause of restoration failure in amalgam restorations is:

a. Marginal leakage

b. Postoperative sensitivity

c. Fracture of the restoration

d. Secondary caries

Answer: d. Secondary caries

Explanation: Secondary caries is the most common cause of failure in amalgam restorations, emphasizing the importance of regular check-ups and oral hygiene maintenance.

²². Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a high-speed handpiece for cavity preparation?

a. Increased risk of pulp exposure

b. Reduced cutting efficiency

c. Difficulty in achieving proper moisture control

d. Limited access to posterior teeth

Answer: a. Increased risk of pulp exposure

Explanation: Using a high-speed handpiece for cavity preparation increases the risk of pulp exposure due to the high

²³. Which of the following materials is commonly used for core build-up in extensively damaged teeth?

a. Composite resin

b. Amalgam

c. Glass ionomer cement

d. Fiber-reinforced composite

Answer: a. Composite resin

Explanation: Composite resin is commonly used for core build-up in extensively damaged teeth due to its ability to provide strength and esthetics.

²⁴. What is the primary purpose of cavity liners in restorative dentistry?

a. To provide thermal insulation

b. To enhance the bond strength of restorative materials

c. To prevent microleakage

d. To improve esthetics

Answer: a. To provide thermal insulation

Explanation: Cavity liners are used to provide thermal insulation and protect the pulp from temperature changes during restorative procedures.

²⁵. Which of the following cavity preparation designs is used for the restoration of class V lesions?

a. Round

b. Slot

c. Modified triangular

d. Gingival bevel

Answer: b. Slot

Explanation: Class V cavity preparation design involves creating a slot-shaped preparation on the facial or lingual surface of the tooth to restore class V lesions.

²⁶. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a high-speed handpiece for cavity preparation?

a. Increased risk of pulp exposure

b. Reduced cutting efficiency

c. Difficulty in achieving proper moisture control

d. Limited access to posterior teeth

Answer: a. Increased risk of pulp exposure

Explanation: Using a high-speed handpiece for cavity preparation increases the risk of pulp exposure due to the high rotational speed and potential heat generation.

²⁷. The primary advantage of using a rubber dam during restorative procedures is:

a. Improved visibility

b. Enhanced patient comfort

c. Increased bond strength

d. Reduced postoperative sensitivity

Answer: a. Improved visibility

Explanation: The use of a rubber dam during restorative procedures provides improved visibility of the operating field, allowing for better control and precision.

²⁸. Which of the following is a common indication for an indirect pulp capping procedure?

a. Deep carious lesion close to the pulp

b. Exposed pulp

c. Reversible pulpitis

d. Irreversible pulpitis

Answer: a. Deep carious lesion close to the pulp

Explanation: Indirect pulp capping is indicated when a deep carious lesion is close to the pulp but has not yet caused irreversible pulpitis or pulp exposure.

²⁹. Which of the following instruments is commonly used for caries removal during cavity preparation?

a. Spoon excavator

b. Periodontal probe

c. Explorer

d. Condenser

Answer: a. Spoon excavator

Explanation: Spoon excavators are commonly used to remove caries during cavity preparation due to their curved shape and ability to scoop out soft carious dentin.

³⁰. The primary advantage of using a glass ionomer cement as a restorative material is:

a. High esthetics

b. Excellent strength

c. Minimal postoperative sensitivity

d. Long-term durability

Answer: c. Minimal postoperative sensitivity

Explanation: Glass ionomer cement has the advantage of minimal postoperative sensitivity, making it suitable for restorations in areas of the tooth that are more prone to sensitivity.

³¹. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a resin-modified glass ionomer cement?

a. Poor esthetics

b. Low strength

c. Difficult handling properties

d. High solubility

Answer: b. Low strength

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomer cement has lower strength compared to other restorative materials, which may limit its use in high-stress-bearing areas.

³². What is the purpose of a cavity varnish in restorative dentistry?

a. To provide thermal insulation

b. To enhance the bond strength of restorative materials

c. To prevent microleakage

d. To reduce postoperative sensitivity

Answer: c. To prevent microleakage

Explanation: Cavity varnish is used to seal the dentinal tubules and prevent microleakage, which can lead to postoperative sensitivity and secondary caries.

³³. Which of the following is the most common reason for replacing amalgam restorations?

a. Marginal breakdown

b. Esthetic concerns

c. Fracture of the restoration

d. Secondary caries

Answer: a. Marginal breakdown

Explanation: Marginal breakdown is the most common reason for replacing amalgam restorations, often due to marginal leakage and subsequent secondary caries.

³⁴. Which of the following is true regarding the use of a rubber dam during restorative procedures?

a. It reduces the risk of contamination.

b. It increases the risk of postoperative sensitivity.

c. It interferes with visibility.

d. It is contraindicated for pediatric patients.

Answer: a. It reduces the risk of contamination.

Explanation: The use of a rubber dam during restorative procedures provides isolation and improves visibility. It also reduces the risk of contamination from saliva and gingival fluids, leading to better outcomes and reduced postoperative complications.

³⁵. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of composite resin as a restorative material?

a. Extensive caries involvement

b. High occlusal forces

c. Allergy to resin materials

d. Patient preference for amalgam

Answer: c. Allergy to resin materials

Explanation: Allergy to resin materials is a contraindication for the use of composite resin as a restorative material. In such cases, alternative materials like amalgam or glass ionomer cement may be considered.

³⁶. What is the primary purpose of etching the enamel before placing a composite resin restoration?

a. To remove the smear layer

b. To improve the bond strength

c. To reduce postoperative sensitivity

d. To prevent microleakage

Answer: b. To improve the bond strength

Explanation: Etching the enamel before placing a composite resin restoration creates micro-retentive patterns on the enamel surface, improving the bond strength between the enamel and the resin material.

³⁷. Which of the following is an advantage of using a self-etch adhesive system?

a. Reduced technique sensitivity

b. Improved bond strength to enamel

c. Enhanced esthetics

d. Increased resistance to wear

Answer: a. Reduced technique sensitivity

Explanation: Self-etch adhesive systems have the advantage of reduced technique sensitivity when compared to total-etch systems. They simplify the bonding procedure by simultaneously etching and priming the tooth surface.

³⁸. What is the primary purpose of applying a dentin bonding agent during composite resin restoration?

a. To provide thermal insulation

b. To improve the bond strength to dentin

c. To prevent postoperative sensitivity

d. To enhance the esthetics of the restoration

Answer: b. To improve the bond strength to dentin

Explanation: The primary purpose of applying a dentin bonding agent during composite resin restoration is to improve the bond strength between the resin material and the dentin substrate.

³⁹. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a resin-modified glass ionomer cement as a base or liner?

a. Limited esthetics

b. High solubility

c. Low compressive strength

d. Increased technique sensitivity

Answer: c. Low compressive strength

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomer cement has lower compressive strength compared to other base or liner materials like calcium hydroxide or composite resin, which may limit its use in areas with high occlusal forces.

⁴⁰. Which of the following is a common indication for a pulp capping procedure?

a. Irreversible pulpitis

b. Deep caries with pulp exposure

c. Reversible pulpitis

d. Pulpal calcification

Answer: c. Reversible pulpitis

Explanation: Pulp capping is indicated for cases of reversible pulpitis, where the pulp is inflamed but can heal and recover after appropriate treatment. It involves placing a protective material over the exposed or nearly exposed pulp.

⁴¹. Which of the following is NOT a direct restorative material?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Gold

Answer: D) Gold

Explanation: Gold is a type of indirect restorative material, while composites, amalgam, and glass ionomer are examples of direct restorative materials.

⁴². Which dental material exhibits the highest compressive strength?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: B) Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam typically has the highest compressive strength among the listed materials.

⁴³. What is the primary advantage of using a resin-modified glass ionomer compared to traditional glass ionomer?

A) Higher fluoride release

B) Better esthetics

C) Increased strength

D) Faster setting time

Answer: B) Better esthetics

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomers offer improved esthetics compared to traditional glass ionomers due to the addition of resin.

⁴⁴. Which dental material is MOST susceptible to moisture contamination during placement?

A) Amalgam

B) Composite

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: B) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations are highly technique-sensitive and are susceptible to moisture contamination during placement, which can compromise the bond and result in failure.

⁴⁵. Which restorative material is LEAST radiopaque on a dental radiograph?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Gold

Answer: A) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations are the least radiopaque among the listed materials, making them less visible on radiographs compared to amalgam, glass ionomer, and gold.

⁴⁶. Which type of bond is formed between dentin and resin in an etch-and-rinse adhesive system?

A) Mechanical

B) Chemical

C) Micromechanical

D) Electrostatic

Answer: C) Micromechanical

Explanation: Etch-and-rinse adhesive systems rely on micromechanical bonding, where resin tags penetrate the etched dentin surface to create retention.

⁴⁷. Which cavity preparation design involves removing unsupported enamel and minimizing the extent of caries removal?

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class V

Answer: D) Class V

Explanation: Class V cavity preparations are typically used for cervical caries lesions and involve minimal caries removal, preserving tooth structure.

⁴⁸. Which of the following materials requires an acid-etching step for bonding to enamel?

A) Glass Ionomer

B) Amalgam

C) Composite

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: C) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations require acid etching to create a micromechanical bond with enamel, enhancing retention.

⁴⁹. Which restorative material is contraindicated for restoring large Class II cavities?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: C) Glass Ionomer

Explanation: Glass ionomer restorations are not recommended for large Class II cavities due to their lower strength compared to amalgam or composite.

⁵⁰. What is the primary disadvantage of using a resin-modified glass ionomer as a base or liner?

A) Poor adhesion to tooth structure

B) Low fluoride release

C) High solubility

D) Lack of esthetics

Answer: C) High solubility

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomers have higher solubility compared to other materials, making them less suitable as a long-term base or liner.

⁵¹. Which restorative material is MOST prone to microleakage?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: A) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations are more prone to microleakage compared to amalgam or glass ionomer due to polymerization shrinkage and technique sensitivity.

⁵². Which cavity preparation design is typically used for a mesio-occlusal-distal (MOD) amalgam restoration?

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class V

Answer: B) Class II

Explanation: Class II cavity preparations are used for restorations involving proximal surfaces of posterior teeth, such as MOD restorations.

⁵³. What is the purpose of a cavity liner?

A) To provide thermal insulation

B) To promote dentin remineralization

C) To improve esthetics

D) To enhance bond strength

Answer: A) To provide thermal insulation

Explanation: Cavity liners are used to provide thermal insulation and protect the pulp from temperature changes during restorative procedures.

⁵⁴. Which type of composite restoration is MOST resistant to wear?

A) Microfilled

B) Nanofilled

C) Hybrid

D) Flowable

Answer: C) Hybrid

Explanation: Hybrid composites, which combine microfilled and macrofilled particles, typically exhibit higher wear resistance compared to other types of composites.

⁵⁵. What is the primary disadvantage of using a glass ionomer cement as a restorative material?

A) Low esthetics

B) Poor adhesion to tooth structure

C) High solubility

D) Low fluoride release

Answer: C) High solubility

Explanation: Glass ionomer cements have relatively high solubility, particularly in the initial setting phase, which can compromise restoration longevity.

⁵⁶. Which of the following materials exhibits the highest coefficient of thermal expansion?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomers typically have higher coefficients of thermal expansion compared to other restorative materials.

⁵⁷. Which type of matrix system is commonly used for Class II composite restorations?

A) Tofflemire

B) Mylar strip

C) Sectional matrix

D) Wooden wedge

Answer: C) Sectional matrix

Explanation: Sectional matrix systems are preferred for Class II composite restorations as they provide better adaptation and contouring of the restoration.

⁵⁸. Which of the following materials is MOST radiopaque on a dental radiograph?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Zinc Oxide Eugenol

Answer: B) Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam restorations are highly radiopaque

⁵⁹. Which restorative material is most suitable for restoring primary teeth with high caries risk due to its fluoride release properties?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: C) Glass Ionomer

Explanation: Glass ionomer restorations release fluoride, which can help prevent secondary caries in primary teeth with high caries risk.

⁶⁰. What is the primary mechanism of adhesion for resin-modified glass ionomer restorations?

A) Chemical bonding

B) Mechanical interlocking

C) Van der Waals forces

D) Electrostatic attraction

Answer: A) Chemical bonding

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomer restorations achieve adhesion through chemical bonding to tooth structure.

⁶¹. Which of the following techniques is used to enhance the adaptation and marginal seal of a Class II composite restoration?

A) Incremental layering

B) Bulk placement

C) Sandwich technique

D) Overlapping increments

Answer: A) Incremental layering

Explanation: Incremental layering technique involves placing composite in small increments to improve adaptation and reduce polymerization shrinkage stress.

⁶². What is the primary role of a dentin bonding agent in composite restorations?

A) Provide mechanical retention

B) Seal dentinal tubules

C) Increase radiopacity

D) Enhance esthetics

Answer: B) Seal dentinal tubules

Explanation: Dentin bonding agents are used to seal dentinal tubules and create a micromechanical bond with composite resin.

⁶³. Which restorative material is least affected by moisture contamination during placement?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: B) Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam restorations are less affected by moisture contamination during placement compared to composite or glass ionomer.

⁶⁴. What is the primary purpose of a cavity varnish?

A) Provide thermal insulation

B) Seal dentinal tubules

C) Enhance adhesion

D) Promote pulp vitality

Answer: B) Seal dentinal tubules

Explanation: Cavity varnish is applied to dentin to seal dentinal tubules and reduce microleakage.

⁶⁵. Which restorative material is most commonly used for anterior composite veneers due to its superior esthetics?

A) Microfilled composite

B) Hybrid composite

C) Nanofilled composite

D) Flowable composite

Answer: A) Microfilled composite

Explanation: Microfilled composites are preferred for anterior composite veneers due to their excellent polishability and esthetics.

⁶⁶. Which of the following materials exhibits the lowest thermal conductivity?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Zinc Phosphate Cement

Answer: A) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations have lower thermal conductivity compared to other materials, reducing sensitivity to temperature changes.

⁶⁷. Which cavity preparation design is typically used for an occlusal amalgam restoration in a primary molar?

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class V

Answer: A) Class I

Explanation: Class I cavity preparations are used for occlusal amalgam restorations in primary molars.

⁶⁸. What is the primary disadvantage of using an etch-and-rinse adhesive system?

A) Technique-sensitive application

B) Reduced bond strength

C) Inability to bond to enamel

D) Increased microleakage

Answer: A) Technique-sensitive application

Explanation: Etch-and-rinse adhesive systems require precise technique for optimal bonding, making them more technique-sensitive compared to self-etch systems.

⁶⁹. Which type of matrix system is commonly used for Class II amalgam restorations?

A) Tofflemire

B) Mylar strip

C) Sectional matrix

D) Wooden wedge

Answer: A) Tofflemire

Explanation: Tofflemire matrix systems are commonly used for Class II amalgam restorations due to their adaptability and stability.

⁷⁰. What is the primary purpose of a liner in a composite restoration?

A) Improve adhesion

B) Provide thermal insulation

C) Seal dentinal tubules

D) Enhance esthetics

Answer: B) Provide thermal insulation

Explanation: Liners are used in composite restorations to provide thermal insulation and protect the pulp from temperature changes.

⁷¹. Which type of composite filler particles is associated with the highest wear resistance?

A) Macrofilled

B) Microfilled

C) Hybrid

D) Nanofilled

Answer: D) Nanofilled

Explanation: Nanofilled composite materials typically exhibit the highest wear resistance due to the small size and uniform distribution of filler particles.

⁷². Which restorative material requires the use of a mechanical retention form for adequate retention?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: B) Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam restorations require mechanical retention forms, such as dovetails or boxes, for adequate retention.

⁷³. What is the primary disadvantage of using a glass ionomer cement for Class II restorations?

A) Low esthetics

B) High solubility

C) Poor adhesion to tooth structure

D) Limited fluoride release

Answer: C) Poor adhesion to tooth structure

Explanation: Glass ionomer cements have relatively poor adhesion to tooth structure, particularly in high-stress areas like Class II restorations.

⁷⁴. Which restorative material is most commonly used for primary teeth due to its ease of placement and fluoride release properties?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: C) Glass Ionomer

Explanation: Glass ionomer is commonly used for primary teeth due to its fluoride release properties and ease of placement.

⁷⁵. What is the primary mechanism of adhesion for self-etch adhesive systems?

A) Mechanical interlocking

B) Chemical bonding

C) Electrostatic attraction

D) Van der Waals forces

Answer: B) Chemical bonding

Explanation: Self-etch adhesive systems achieve adhesion through chemical bonding to both enamel and dentin without the need for separate etching steps.

⁷⁶. Which restorative material is most susceptible to discoloration over time?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: A) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations are more prone to discoloration over time compared to other materials, particularly in areas of high staining potential.

⁷⁷. Which restorative material exhibits the lowest solubility in oral fluids?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: B) Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam restorations have low solubility in oral fluids, contributing to their longevity and durability.

⁷⁸. What is the primary mechanism of adhesion for resin-modified glass ionomer restorations?

A) Chemical bonding

B) Mechanical interlocking

C) Van der Waals forces

D) Electrostatic attraction

Answer: A) Chemical bonding

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomer restorations achieve adhesion through chemical bonding to tooth structure.

⁷⁹. Which of the following techniques is used to enhance the adaptation and marginal seal of a Class II composite restoration?

A) Incremental layering

B) Bulk placement

C) Sandwich technique

D) Overlapping increments

Answer: A) Incremental layering

Explanation: Incremental layering technique involves placing composite in small increments to improve adaptation and reduce polymerization shrinkage stress.

⁸⁰. What is the primary role of a dentin bonding agent in composite restorations?

A) Provide mechanical retention

B) Seal dentinal tubules

C) Increase radiopacity

D) Enhance esthetics

Answer: B) Seal dentinal tubules

Explanation: Dentin bonding agents are used to seal dentinal tubules and create a micromechanical bond with composite resin.

⁸¹. Which restorative material is least affected by moisture contamination during placement?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: B) Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam restorations are less affected by moisture contamination during placement compared to composite or glass ionomer.

⁸². What is the primary purpose of a cavity varnish?

A) Provide thermal insulation

B) Seal dentinal tubules

C) Enhance adhesion

D) Promote pulp vitality

Answer: B) Seal dentinal tubules

Explanation: Cavity varnish is applied to dentin to seal dentinal tubules and reduce microleakage.

⁸³. Which restorative material is most commonly used for anterior composite veneers due to its superior esthetics?

A) Microfilled composite

B) Hybrid composite

C) Nanofilled composite

D) Flowable composite

Answer: A) Microfilled composite

Explanation: Microfilled composites are preferred for anterior composite veneers due to their excellent polishability and esthetics.

⁸⁴. Which of the following materials exhibits the lowest thermal conductivity?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Zinc Phosphate Cement

Answer: A) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations have lower thermal conductivity compared to other materials, reducing sensitivity to temperature changes.

⁸⁵. Which cavity preparation design is typically used for an occlusal amalgam restoration in a primary molar?

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class V

Answer: A) Class I

Explanation: Class I cavity preparations are used for occlusal amalgam restorations in primary molars.

⁸⁶. What is the primary disadvantage of using an etch-and-rinse adhesive system?

A) Technique-sensitive application

B) Reduced bond strength

C) Inability to bond to enamel

D) Increased microleakage

Answer: A) Technique-sensitive application

Explanation: Etch-and-rinse adhesive systems require precise technique for optimal bonding, making them more technique-sensitive compared to self-etch systems.

⁸⁷. Which type of matrix system is commonly used for Class II amalgam restorations?

A) Tofflemire

B) Mylar strip

C) Sectional matrix

D) Wooden wedge

Answer: A) Tofflemire

Explanation: Tofflemire matrix systems are commonly used for Class II amalgam restorations due to their adaptability and stability.

⁸⁸. What is the primary purpose of a liner in a composite restoration?

A) Improve adhesion

B) Provide thermal insulation

C) Seal dentinal tubules

D) Enhance esthetics

Answer: B) Provide thermal insulation

Explanation: Liners are used in composite restorations to provide thermal insulation and protect the pulp from temperature changes.

⁸⁹. Which type of composite filler particles is associated with the highest wear resistance?

A) Macrofilled

B) Microfilled

C) Hybrid

D) Nanofilled

Answer: D) Nanofilled

Explanation: Nanofilled composite materials typically exhibit the highest wear resistance due to the small size and uniform distribution of filler particles.

⁹⁰. Which restorative material requires the use of a mechanical retention form for adequate retention?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: B) Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam restorations require mechanical retention forms, such as dovetails or boxes, for adequate retention.

⁹¹. What is the primary disadvantage of using a glass ionomer cement for Class II restorations?

A) Low esthetics

B) High solubility

C) Poor adhesion to tooth structure

D) Limited fluoride release

Answer: C) Poor adhesion to tooth structure

Explanation: Glass ionomer cements have relatively poor adhesion to tooth structure, particularly in high-stress areas like Class II restorations.

⁹². Which restorative material is most commonly used for primary teeth due to its ease of placement and fluoride release properties?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: C) Glass Ionomer

Explanation: Glass ionomer is commonly used for primary teeth due to its fluoride release properties and ease of placement.

⁹³. What is the primary mechanism of adhesion for self-etch adhesive systems?

A) Mechanical interlocking

B) Chemical bonding

C) Electrostatic attraction

D) Van der Waals forces

Answer: B) Chemical bonding

Explanation: Self-etch adhesive systems achieve adhesion through chemical bonding to both enamel and dentin without the need for separate etching steps.

⁹⁴. Which restorative material is most susceptible to discoloration over time?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: A) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations are more prone to discoloration over time compared to other materials, particularly in areas of high staining potential.

⁹⁵. Which of the following materials exhibits the lowest thermal conductivity?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

––––––––

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: A) Composite

Explanation: Composite restorations have lower thermal conductivity compared to other restorative materials.

⁹⁶. What is the primary purpose of using a cavity liner in a deep cavity preparation?

A) Provide thermal insulation

B) Seal dentinal tubules

C) Enhance adhesion

D) Prevent microleakage

Answer: A) Provide thermal insulation

Explanation: Cavity liners are used to provide thermal insulation and protect the pulp from temperature changes in deep cavity preparations.

⁹⁷. Which type of matrix system is commonly used for Class II composite restorations?

A) Tofflemire

B) Mylar strip

C) Sectional matrix

D) Wooden wedge

Answer: C) Sectional matrix

Explanation: Sectional matrix systems are commonly used for Class II composite restorations to achieve proper adaptation and contouring.

⁹⁸. What is the primary disadvantage of using a microfilled composite for posterior restorations?

A) Poor wear resistance

B) High polymerization shrinkage

C) Limited translucency

D) Low radiopacity

Answer: A) Poor wear resistance

Explanation: Microfilled composites have poorer wear resistance compared to other types of composites, making them less suitable for posterior restorations.

⁹⁹. Which restorative material is most commonly associated with galvanic corrosion when placed adjacent to other metallic restorations?

A) Composite

B) Amalgam

C) Glass Ionomer

D) Resin-modified Glass Ionomer

Answer: B) Amalgam

Explanation: Amalgam restorations are more prone to galvanic corrosion when placed adjacent to other metallic restorations due to differences in electrical potential.

¹⁰⁰. What is the primary advantage of using a resin-modified glass ionomer compared to traditional glass ionomer?

A) Higher fluoride release

B) Better esthetics

C) Increased strength

D) Faster setting time

Answer: B) Better esthetics

Explanation: Resin-modified glass ionomers offer improved esthetics compared to traditional glass ionomers due to the addition of resin.

¹⁰¹. Which cavity preparation design involves removing unsupported enamel and minimizing the extent of caries removal?

A) Class I

B) Class II

C) Class III

D) Class V

Answer: D) Class V

Explanation: Class V cavity preparations are typically used for cervical caries lesions and involve minimal caries removal, preserving tooth structure.

Pediatric Dentistry

¹. Which primary teeth are most commonly affected by early childhood caries?

A. Maxillary incisors

B. Mandibular molars

C. Maxillary canines

D. Mandibular incisors

**Answer: D. Mandibular incisors**

Explanation: Mandibular incisors are commonly affected by early childhood caries due to their position in the mouth and the difficulty in cleaning them.

². What is the most common developmental dental anomaly in primary teeth?

A. Fusion

B. Gemination

C. Dens in dente

D. Hypodontia

**Answer: A. Fusion**

Explanation: Fusion is the most common developmental dental anomaly in primary teeth, where two teeth develop as one.

³. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the first molar?

A. Primary first molar

B. Primary second molar

C. Primary first premolar

D. Primary second premolar

**Answer: A. Primary first molar**

Explanation: Primary first molars are often referred to as first molars in pediatric dentistry.

⁴. Which dental condition is associated with the Eruption Hematoma phenomenon in children?

A. Gingivitis

B. Teething

C. Early childhood caries

D. Ectodermal dysplasia

**Answer: B. Teething**

Explanation: Eruption hematoma, also known as eruption cyst, is a common occurrence during the eruption of primary teeth in children.

⁵. Which primary tooth typically erupts first in the oral cavity?

A. Maxillary central incisor

B. Mandibular central incisor

C. Maxillary first molar

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: B. Mandibular central incisor**

Explanation: Mandibular central incisors are usually the first primary teeth to erupt, typically around 6 to 10 months of age.

⁶. What is the most common cause of tooth discoloration in primary teeth?

A. Dental trauma

B. Fluorosis

C. Dental caries

D. Pulpal necrosis

**Answer: D. Pulpal necrosis**

Explanation: Pulpal necrosis is the most common cause of tooth discoloration in primary teeth, leading to a grayish appearance.

⁷. What is the most common dental emergency in pediatric patients?

A. Pulpal necrosis

B. Dental trauma

C. Ectopic eruption

D. Ankylosis

**Answer: B. Dental trauma**

Explanation: Dental trauma, such as avulsion or fracture of teeth, is the most common dental emergency in pediatric patients.

⁸. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the eye tooth?

A. Maxillary lateral incisor

B. Maxillary canine

C. Mandibular lateral incisor

D. Mandibular canine

**Answer: B. Maxillary canine**

Explanation: Maxillary canines are often referred to as eye teeth due to their prominent position in the dental arch.

⁹. What is the recommended age for the first dental visit of a child according to the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD)?

A. 2 years

B. 3 years

C. 1 year

D. 4 years

**Answer: C. 1 year**

Explanation: The AAPD recommends that children should have their first dental visit by the age of 1 year or within 6 months after the eruption of the first tooth.

¹⁰. Which primary tooth has the longest root?

A. Maxillary central incisor

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary first molar

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: D. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars typically have the longest roots among primary teeth.

¹¹. What is the most common type of supernumerary tooth in primary dentition?

A. Mesiodens

B. Paramolar

C. Distomolar

D. Supplemental

**Answer: A. Mesiodens**

Explanation: Mesiodens is the most common type of supernumerary tooth found in primary dentition, typically located between the maxillary central incisors.

¹². What is the most common cause of premature primary tooth loss?

A. Dental caries

B. Trauma

C. Periodontal disease

D. Ectopic eruption

**Answer: A. Dental caries**

Explanation: Dental caries is the most common cause of premature primary tooth loss, often leading to early extraction.

¹³. What is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with pulp necrosis?

A. Pulpotomy

B. Pulpectomy

C. Extraction

D. Composite restoration

**Answer: B. Pulpectomy**

Explanation: Pulpectomy, which involves complete removal of pulp tissue, is the recommended treatment for a primary tooth with pulp necrosis.

¹⁴. What is the most common type of dental malocclusion in the primary dentition?

A. Class I malocclusion

B. Class II malocclusion

C. Class III malocclusion

D. Open bite

**Answer: B. Class II malocclusion**

Explanation: Class II malocclusion is the most common type of dental malocclusion in the primary dentition, characterized by protrusion of the maxillary incisors.

¹⁵. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of the dental arch?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular first molar

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular central incisor

**Answer: B. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars are often called the cornerstone of the dental arch due to their importance in maintaining arch integrity.

¹⁶. What is the most common type of ectopic eruption in the primary dentition?

A. Maxillary incisor ectopia

B. Mandibular canine ectopia

C. Maxillary molar ectopia

D. Mandibular molar ectopia

**Answer: B. Mandibular canine ectopia**

Explanation: Ectopic eruption of mandibular canines is the most common type of ectopic eruption in the primary dentition.

¹⁷. Which primary tooth is most commonly affected by ankylosis?

A. Maxillary central incisor

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary first molar

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: D. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars are most commonly affected by ankylosis, leading to failure of eruption and subsequent malocclusion.

¹⁸. What is the most common complication associated with a retained primary tooth?

––––––––

A

. Ectopic eruption

B. Impaction

C. Resorption of the adjacent permanent tooth

D. Supernumerary tooth formation

**Answer: C. Resorption of the adjacent permanent tooth**

Explanation: Retained primary teeth can lead to resorption of the adjacent permanent tooth due to mechanical pressure.

¹⁹. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the baby tooth?

A. Primary central incisor

B. Primary lateral incisor

C. Primary canine

D. Primary first molar

**Answer: A. Primary central incisor**

Explanation: Primary central incisors are often referred to as baby teeth due to their early eruption and significance in the primary dentition.

²⁰. What is the most common cause of enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth?

A. Fluorosis

B. Trauma

C. Systemic illness during tooth development

D. Genetic factors

**Answer: C. Systemic illness during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth is commonly caused by systemic illness or nutritional deficiencies during tooth development.

²¹. What is the most appropriate management for an avulsed primary tooth?

A. Replantation

B. Extraction

C. Observation

D. Splinting

**Answer: B. Extraction**

Explanation: Avulsed primary teeth are not replanted due to potential damage to the developing permanent tooth bud. Extraction is usually indicated.

²². Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the second molar?

A. Primary second molar

B. Primary first molar

C. Primary second premolar

D. Primary first premolar

**Answer: A. Primary second molar**

Explanation: Primary second molars are often called second molars in pediatric dentistry.

²³. What is the most common cause of enamel fluorosis in primary teeth?

A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development

B. Genetic factors

C. Trauma

D. Pulpal necrosis

**Answer: A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel fluorosis in primary teeth is primarily caused by excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development.

²⁴. Which primary tooth is most commonly affected by dental caries in children?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: D. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars are most commonly affected by dental caries in children due to their eruption pattern and susceptibility to plaque accumulation.

²⁵. What is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia?

A. Composite restoration

B. Stainless steel crown

C. Pulpotomy

D. Extraction

**Answer: A. Composite restoration**

Explanation: Composite restoration is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia, aiming to restore aesthetics and function.

²⁶. What is the most common type of dental cyst associated with primary teeth?

A. Radicular cyst

B. Dentigerous cyst

C. Eruption cyst

D. Gingival cyst

**Answer: C. Eruption cyst**

Explanation: Eruption cysts are the most common type of dental cyst associated with primary teeth, occurring during the eruption process.

²⁷. Which primary tooth often serves as a guide for space maintenance in pediatric dentistry?

A. Maxillary second molar

B. Mandibular first molar

C. Maxillary first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: B. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars are often used as guides for space maintenance due to their early eruption and significance in arch integrity.

²⁸. What is the most common cause of primary tooth discoloration following trauma?

A. Pulpal necrosis

B. Enamel hypoplasia

C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

D. Amelogenesis imperfecta

**Answer: A. Pulpal necrosis**

Explanation: Pulpal necrosis following trauma is the most common cause of primary tooth discoloration, typically resulting in a grayish hue.

²⁹. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the cuspid tooth?

A. Maxillary central incisor

B. Mandibular lateral incisor

C. Maxillary canine

D. Mandibular canine

**Answer: C. Maxillary canine**

Explanation: Maxillary canines are commonly referred to as cuspid teeth due to their pointed shape and function.

³⁰. What is the most common type of tooth fracture in primary teeth?

A. Ellis Class I

B. Ellis Class II

C. Ellis Class III

D. Ellis Class IV

**Answer: C. Ellis Class III**

Explanation: Ellis Class III fractures involve enamel, dentin, and pulp, representing the most common type of tooth fracture in primary teeth.

³¹. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of occlusion?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular first molar

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular central incisor

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often called the cornerstone of occlusion due to their role in establishing occlusal relationships.

³². What is the most common cause of primary tooth resorption?

A. Trauma

B. Pulpal necrosis

C. Periodontal disease

D. Orthodontic forces

**Answer: B. Pulpal necrosis**

Explanation: Pulpal necrosis is the most common cause of primary tooth resorption, leading to inflammatory processes within the tooth.

³³. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the peg-shaped tooth?

A. Maxillary central incisor

B. Maxillary lateral incisor

C. Mandibular central incisor

D. Mandibular lateral incisor

**Answer: B. Maxillary lateral incisor**

Explanation: Maxillary lateral incisors are often described as peg-shaped due to their smaller size and conical appearance.

³⁴. What is the most common cause of failure in a pulpotomy procedure in primary teeth?

A. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue

B. Over-extension of the pulp medicament

C. Excessive bleeding

D. Inadequate isolation

**Answer: A. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue**

Explanation: Incomplete removal of pulp tissue during pulpotomy is the most common cause of failure, leading to persistent infection.

³⁵. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the eye tooth?

A. Maxillary canine

B. Mandibular canine

C. Maxillary first molar

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary canine**

Explanation: Maxillary canines are often called "

eye teeth" due to their position beneath the eyes and their prominence in the dental arch.

³⁶. What is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel fluorosis?

A. Composite veneer

B. Stainless steel crown

C. Tooth whitening

D. Observation

**Answer: A. Composite veneer**

Explanation: Composite veneers can be used to improve the aesthetics of primary teeth affected by enamel fluorosis.

³⁷. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the molar tooth?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often referred to as molar teeth due to their large size and multi-cusped anatomy.

³⁸. What is the most common cause of anterior crossbite in primary dentition?

A. Mandibular incisor crowding

B. Maxillary incisor protrusion

C. Palatal cleft

D. Mandibular canine ectopia

**Answer: B. Maxillary incisor protrusion**

Explanation: Anterior crossbite in primary dentition is commonly caused by maxillary incisor protrusion, leading to misalignment of the anterior teeth.

³⁹. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of occlusion?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often called the cornerstone of occlusion due to their role in establishing occlusal relationships.

⁴⁰. What is the most common cause of primary tooth mobility?

A. Trauma

B. Periodontal disease

C. Eruption process

D. Occlusal trauma

**Answer: B. Periodontal disease**

Explanation: Periodontal disease is the most common cause of primary tooth mobility, leading to attachment loss and subsequent tooth movement.

⁴¹. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the cuspid tooth?

A. Maxillary canine

B. Mandibular canine

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular central incisor

**Answer: A. Maxillary canine**

Explanation: Maxillary canines are commonly referred to as cuspid teeth due to their pointed shape and function.

⁴². What is the most common cause of enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth?

A. Genetic factors

B. Trauma

C. Systemic illness during tooth development

D. Nutritional deficiencies

**Answer: C. Systemic illness during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth is commonly caused by systemic illness or nutritional deficiencies during tooth development.

⁴³. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of the dental arch?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often called the cornerstone of the dental arch due to their importance in maintaining arch integrity.

⁴⁴. What is the most common cause of enamel fluorosis in primary teeth?

A. Trauma

B. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development

C. Genetic factors

D. Pulpal necrosis

**Answer: B. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel fluorosis in primary teeth is primarily caused by excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development.

⁴⁵. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the eye tooth?

A. Maxillary canine

B. Mandibular canine

C. Maxillary first molar

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary canine**

Explanation: Maxillary canines are often called eye teeth due to their position beneath the eyes and their prominence in the dental arch.

⁴⁶. What is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia?

A. Composite restoration

B. Stainless steel crown

C. Pulpotomy

D. Extraction

**Answer: A. Composite restoration**

Explanation: Composite restoration is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia, aiming to restore aesthetics and function.

⁴⁷. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the baby tooth?

A. Primary central incisor

B. Primary lateral incisor

C. Primary canine

D. Primary first molar

**Answer: A. Primary central incisor**

Explanation: Primary central incisors are often referred to as baby teeth due to their early eruption and significance in the primary dentition.

⁴⁸. What is the most common cause of tooth discoloration in primary teeth?

A. Dental trauma

B. Fluorosis

C. Dental caries

D. Pulpal necrosis

**Answer: D. Pulpal necrosis**

Explanation: Pulpal necrosis is the most common cause of tooth discoloration in primary teeth, leading to a grayish appearance.

⁴⁹. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the second molar?

A. Primary second molar

B. Primary first molar

C. Primary second premolar

D. Primary first premolar

**Answer: A. Primary second molar**

Explanation: Primary second molars are often called second molars in pediatric dentistry.

⁵⁰. What is the most common type of ectopic eruption in the primary dentition?

A. Maxillary incisor ectopia

B. Mandibular canine ectopia

C. Maxillary molar ectopia

D. Mandibular molar ectopia

**Answer: B. Mandibular canine ectopia**

Explanation: Ectopic eruption of mandibular canines is the most common type of ectopic eruption in the primary dentition.

⁵¹. Which primary tooth is most commonly affected by ankylosis?

A. Maxillary central incisor

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary first molar

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: D. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars are most commonly affected by ankylosis, leading to failure of eruption and subsequent malocclusion.

⁵². What is the most common complication associated with a retained primary tooth?

A. Ectopic eruption

B. Impaction

C. Resorption of the adjacent permanent tooth

D. Supernumerary tooth formation

**Answer: C. Resorption of the adjacent permanent tooth**

Explanation: Retained primary teeth can lead to resorption of the adjacent permanent tooth due to mechanical pressure.

⁵³. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the "baby tooth

"?

A. Primary central incisor

B. Primary lateral incisor

C. Primary canine

D. Primary first molar

**Answer: A. Primary central incisor**

Explanation: Primary central incisors are often referred to as baby teeth due to their early eruption and significance in the primary dentition.

⁵⁴. What is the most common cause of enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth?

A. Fluorosis

B. Trauma

C. Systemic illness during tooth development

D. Genetic factors

**Answer: C. Systemic illness during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth is commonly caused by systemic illness or nutritional deficiencies during tooth development.

⁵⁵. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of the dental arch?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often called the cornerstone of the dental arch due to their importance in maintaining arch integrity.

⁵⁶. What is the most common cause of enamel fluorosis in primary teeth?

A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development

B. Genetic factors

C. Trauma

D. Pulpal necrosis

**Answer: A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel fluorosis in primary teeth is primarily caused by excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development.

⁵⁷. Which primary tooth is most commonly affected by dental caries in children?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: D. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars are most commonly affected by dental caries in children due to their eruption pattern and susceptibility to plaque accumulation.

⁵⁸. What is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia?

A. Composite restoration

B. Stainless steel crown

C. Pulpotomy

D. Extraction

**Answer: A. Composite restoration**

Explanation: Composite restoration is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia, aiming to restore aesthetics and function.

⁵⁹. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the molar tooth?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often referred to as molar teeth due to their large size and multi-cusped anatomy.

⁶⁰. What is the most common cause of failure in a pulpotomy procedure in primary teeth?

A. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue

B. Over-extension of the pulp medicament

C. Excessive bleeding

D. Inadequate isolation

**Answer: A. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue**

Explanation: Incomplete removal of pulp tissue during pulpotomy is the most common cause of failure, leading to persistent infection.

⁶¹. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the baby tooth?

A. Primary central incisor

B. Primary lateral incisor

C. Primary canine

D. Primary first molar

**Answer: A. Primary central incisor**

Explanation: Primary central incisors are often referred to as baby teeth due to their early eruption and significance in the primary dentition.

⁶². What is the most common cause of enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth?

A. Fluorosis

B. Trauma

C. Systemic illness during tooth development

D. Genetic factors

**Answer: C. Systemic illness during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth is commonly caused by systemic illness or nutritional deficiencies during tooth development.

⁶³. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of the dental arch?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often called the cornerstone of the dental arch due to their importance in maintaining arch integrity.

⁶⁴. What is the most common cause of enamel fluorosis in primary teeth?

A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development

B. Genetic factors

C. Trauma

D. Pulpal necrosis

**Answer: A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel fluorosis in primary teeth is primarily caused by excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development.

⁶⁵. Which primary tooth is most commonly affected by dental caries in children?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: D. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars are most commonly affected by dental caries in children due to their eruption pattern and susceptibility to plaque accumulation.

⁶⁶. What is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia?

A. Composite restoration

B. Stainless steel crown

C. Pulpotomy

D. Extraction

**Answer: A. Composite restoration**

Explanation: Composite restoration is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia, aiming to restore aesthetics and function.

⁶⁷. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the molar tooth?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often referred to as molar teeth due to their large size and multi-cusped anatomy.

⁶⁸. What is the most common cause of failure in a pulpotomy procedure in primary teeth?

A. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue

B. Over-extension of the pulp medicament

C. Excessive bleeding

D. Inadequate isolation

**Answer: A. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue**

Explanation: Incomplete removal of pulp tissue during pulpotomy is the most common cause of failure, leading to persistent infection.

⁶⁹. What is the most common cause of anterior crossbite in primary dentition?

A. Mandibular incisor crowding

B. Maxillary incisor protrusion

C. Palatal cleft

D. Mandibular canine ectopia

**Answer: B. Maxillary incisor protrusion**

Explanation: Anterior crossbite in primary dentition is commonly caused by maxillary incisor protrusion, leading to misalignment of the anterior teeth.

⁷⁰. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of occlusion?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often called the cornerstone of occlusion due to their role in establishing occlusal relationships.

⁷¹. What is the most common cause of primary tooth mobility?

A. Trauma

B. Periodontal disease

C. Eruption process

D. Occlusal trauma

**Answer: B. Periodontal disease**

Explanation: Periodontal disease is the most common cause of primary tooth mobility, leading to attachment loss and subsequent tooth movement.

⁷². Which primary tooth is commonly known as the cuspid tooth?

A. Maxillary canine

B. Mandibular canine

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular central incisor

**Answer: A. Maxillary canine**

Explanation: Maxillary canines are commonly referred to as cuspid teeth due to their pointed shape and function.

⁷³. What is the most common cause of enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth?

A. Fluorosis

B. Trauma

C. Systemic illness during tooth development

D. Genetic factors

**Answer: C. Systemic illness during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth is commonly caused by systemic illness or nutritional deficiencies during tooth development.

⁷⁴. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of the dental arch?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often called the cornerstone of the dental arch due to their importance in maintaining arch integrity.

⁷⁵. What is the most common cause of enamel fluorosis in primary teeth?

A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development

B. Genetic factors

C. Trauma

D. Pulpal necrosis

**Answer: A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel fluorosis in primary teeth is primarily caused by excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development.

⁷⁶. Which primary tooth is most commonly affected by dental caries in children?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular first molar

**Answer: D. Mandibular first molar**

Explanation: Mandibular first molars are most commonly affected by dental caries in children due to their eruption pattern and susceptibility to plaque accumulation.

⁷⁷. What is the most appropriate treatment for a primary tooth with enamel hypoplasia?

A. Composite restoration

B. Stainless steel crown

C. Pulpotomy

D. Extraction

**Answer: A. Composite restoration**

Explanation: Composite restoration is the most appropriate treatment for a primary

tooth with enamel hypoplasia, aiming to restore aesthetics and function.

⁷⁸. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the molar tooth?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often referred to as molar teeth due to their large size and multi-cusped anatomy.

⁷⁹. What is the most common cause of failure in a pulpotomy procedure in primary teeth?

A. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue

B. Over-extension of the pulp medicament

C. Excessive bleeding

D. Inadequate isolation

**Answer: A. Incomplete removal of pulp tissue**

Explanation: Incomplete removal of pulp tissue during pulpotomy is the most common cause of failure, leading to persistent infection.

⁸⁰. What is the most common cause of anterior crossbite in primary dentition?

A. Mandibular incisor crowding

B. Maxillary incisor protrusion

C. Palatal cleft

D. Mandibular canine ectopia

**Answer: B. Maxillary incisor protrusion**

Explanation: Anterior crossbite in primary dentition is commonly caused by maxillary incisor protrusion, leading to misalignment of the anterior teeth.

⁸¹. Which primary tooth is commonly known as the cuspid tooth?

A. Maxillary canine

B. Mandibular canine

C. Maxillary central incisor

D. Mandibular central incisor

**Answer: A. Maxillary canine**

Explanation: Maxillary canines are commonly referred to as cuspid teeth due to their pointed shape and function.

⁸². What is the most common cause of enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth?

A. Fluorosis

B. Trauma

C. Systemic illness during tooth development

D. Genetic factors

**Answer: C. Systemic illness during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel hypoplasia in primary teeth is commonly caused by systemic illness or nutritional deficiencies during tooth development.

⁸³. Which primary tooth is commonly referred to as the cornerstone of the dental arch?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Maxillary second molar

C. Mandibular first molar

D. Mandibular second molar

**Answer: A. Maxillary first molar**

Explanation: Maxillary first molars are often called the cornerstone of the dental arch due to their importance in maintaining arch integrity.

⁸⁴. What is the most common cause of enamel fluorosis in primary teeth?

A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development

B. Genetic factors

C. Trauma

D. Pulpal necrosis

**Answer: A. Excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development**

Explanation: Enamel fluorosis in primary teeth is primarily caused by excessive fluoride ingestion during tooth development.

⁸⁵. Which primary tooth is most commonly affected by dental caries in children?

A. Maxillary first molar

B. Mandibular second molar

C. Maxillary central incisor

D.