Another braita is brought to show the differences between the shaving of a nazir and the shaving of a leper. Is the shaving for an impure nazir just to remove the hair of impurity or the act of shaving a mitzva? What is the ramification and how do they learn the answer from the braita we learned earlier about the four shavings? A gentile cannot be a nazir. But a woman and a Canaanite slave can be. A woman appears explicitly in the verse. A Caananite slave is derived from a verse. A Gentile is excluded from the words “bnei yisrael” used to introduce the section about nazir. A question is raised from laws of valuations, as there the gentile is excluded from making valuations as it says “bnei yisrael” but they are included in a certain way as one can make a valuation on a gentile as is derived from the word “man.” Also by nazir we have both  “bnei yisrael” and “man” so why are gentiles not at least partially included? The Gemara attempts in four ways to explain the difference. The first three derive it from the verse stating that a nazir cannot become impure to their mother or father so either the gentile doesn’t have a father or can’t become impure or doesn’t have laws of passing on slaves to his children and therefore not included here. The first and third are rejected but the fact that laws of impurity don’t apply to a gentile is eventually proven. Rava tries a fourth track where he suggests that perhaps nazir would be just like valuations that one is a nazir but not in the same way as a Jew. He then rejects each of those suggestions one by one thus showing that the nazir is different than the laws of valuations regarding gentiles.