Can we assume that when people take an oath/vow in a particular language, they use it in the typical way that those words are generally used and therefore cannot try to explain that they meant it in a unique manner and it wasn't a valid vow/oath? Two attempts are made to derive from sources that one can claim they meant the language in a unique manner, however, both attempts are rejected. The second attempt relates to a source about Moshe who had the Jews swear in his name and in the name of God. Why did he not use some other language that would have made his point just as clearly? What is the meaning of the reference in the Mishna of one who swore they saw a snake like the beam of an olive press? What is a neder shegaga, one where one was unwitting, where the vow will be considered invalid? Does the same apply to oaths? What is an example of an oath of this category? The Mishna mentions a debate between Beit Shamai and Beit Hillel about one who saw people eating in his field and took a vow that they would not be able to benefit from him. Later, he found out that his father and brother were among them and he certainly hadn’t included them in the vow. Is the vow completely invalid or only partially? Do we hold that a vow that has been made partially invalid is completely invalid? Raba and Rava deliberate about exactly which case Beit Shamai and Beit Hillel disagree.